Nephele Posted June 8, 2009 Report Share Posted June 8, 2009 Please also note that the statement itself is not linked to any ancient source. True, but the footnote's author does cite one other 19th century historian as his source for that passage -- William Blair -- whom I suspect may have himself cited ancient sources for that statement in his oft-quoted and, apparently, definitive work on the subject of Roman slavery. I was unable to find a free download of Blair's work on the Web, but I see from WorldCat that the New York Public Library has a copy of Blair's Inquiry into the State of Slavery Amongst the Romans. If I get a chance this weekend, I may visit NYPL and have a look for that book. Or, you could check out WorldCat.org and see if there's a library near you that has Blair's work in its collection. Blair's work seems to be mostly found in university libraries. -- Nephele Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
sylla Posted June 9, 2009 Report Share Posted June 9, 2009 Please also note that the statement itself is not linked to any ancient source. True, but the footnote's author does cite one other 19th century historian as his source for that passage -- William Blair -- whom I suspect may have himself cited ancient sources for that statement in his oft-quoted and, apparently, definitive work on the subject of Roman slavery. I was unable to find a free download of Blair's work on the Web, but I see from WorldCat that the New York Public Library has a copy of Blair's Inquiry into the State of Slavery Amongst the Romans. If I get a chance this weekend, I may visit NYPL and have a look for that book. Or, you could check out WorldCat.org and see if there's a library near you that has Blair's work in its collection. Blair's work seems to be mostly found in university libraries. -- Nephele Thanks for the search, Nephele;judging by Blair's long footnote, I would love to eventually check out more of his work. However, that's hardly required for Ludovicus Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ludovicus Posted June 9, 2009 Author Report Share Posted June 9, 2009 -- Nephele Paradoxically, that was precisely because the civic rights of the Roman slaveowners were going down; the Roman state was messing up more and more with the use of their own private property. Yes, this is a good example that shows that private property rights and human rights can conflict. I've never thought about the fact that in this one area of slave rights that the Empire was more advanced than the Republic. Another is the extension of citizenship to free males. This has been a very good thread. I've learned a lot from the discussions. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Formosus Viriustus Posted June 9, 2009 Report Share Posted June 9, 2009 As far as I know, the servile condition actually improved across the Empire relative to the Republic, at least nominally; master Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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