Onasander Posted June 15, 2014 Report Share Posted June 15, 2014 http://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Slavery_in_ancient_Greece In 2011, Greek slavery remains the subject of historiographical debate, on two questions in particular: can it be said that ancient Greece was a "slave society", and did Greek slaves comprise a social class?[171] _________ Okay.... just spent hours of note taking, leaping from Zeno and ADHD to Assyrian Comedy then into Greek Slavery.... back and forth, around and around.... wrote alot, finger hurts..... then read the quote at the very, very end of the wiki of greek slavery.... Yes.... duh, the greeks owned slaves, and they has a legally differentiated classes of people known by the slaves as "Not Slaves", as opposed to themselves who were indeed still slaves. It seems stupid and obvious to me, but apparently there is some sort of debate on this subject..... So.... what exactly is the opposite argument here? How do you even defend such a position? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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