prr Posted July 14, 2013 Report Share Posted July 14, 2013 I have been doing a lot of reading in the later empire era, and keep coming across a contrarian opionion that in fact, the West was just as wealthy as the East was. I was always taught that the East had a much longer urban tradition, and was closer to the trade routes from south-central Asia (indeed the Roman East was the terminus of those routes), so it was wealthier than the West. I have heard that the West was good in terms of manpower sources for the military, but that's about it. Has anyone come across any sources that would insist the other side---that the West was just as wealthy? If so, are there any English writers that support that idea? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Number Six Posted July 15, 2013 Report Share Posted July 15, 2013 Where do you happen to come across this idea that the West was as wealthy as the East was? In the last thirty years or so, history of late antiquity has changed a lot, but it doesn't occur to me that anybody has seriously challenged the idea of an urbann decline in the West. The phenomenon, though, has been downsized and related to different causes than it used to be. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
caldrail Posted August 18, 2013 Report Share Posted August 18, 2013 Although agricuklture as a whole continued productively, there was an increasingly fragemented western economy, held back by high taxation and costs, further stifled by provincial lawlessness and piracy. Besides which, it had been a Roman policy to attempt to concentrate wealth in the east (which admittedly wasn't a total success but the same thing happened anyway). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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