Divus Iulius Posted December 1, 2012 Report Share Posted December 1, 2012 I have this quote whilst reading through Plutarch, which is very interesting. Plutarch. Nicias. 29 Written 75 C.E. few were stolen away and? sold into slavery, or succeeded in passing themselves off for serving men. These, when they were sold, were branded in the forehead with the mark of a horse http://penelope.uchicago.edu/Thayer/E/Roman/Texts/Plutarch/Lives/Nicias*.html In the above passage writes "branded in the forehead with the mark of a horse", what is a "Mark of a Horse" ??? It is very interesting that "Horse/Ippos" interchanges with "Beast", so "Mark of the Horse" becomes "Mark of the Beast" "Plutarch. Nicias 29" , talks about being "Sold/Bought", Mark of the Beast, and "Forehead. so the author of "Book of Revelation" simply reworded the passage. Revelations 13:17-18 so that no one could buy or sell unless he had the mark, which is the name of the beast or the number of his name, This calls for wisdom. If anyone has insight, let him calculate the number of the beast, for it is man's number. His number is 666 Plutarch. Nicias. 29 Written 75 C.E. few were stolen away and? sold into slavery, or succeeded in passing themselves off for serving men. These, when they were sold, were branded in the forehead with the mark of a horse It would be obvious that "Mark of the Horse" would more-likely to have being "Numbers", they numbered the Horses, In Plutarch they placed the "Number/Marks" upon the Slaves, whom were Sold, and in Revelations, they depict a "Man", being Branded with a Number, and Revelations state "No Once can Sell, unless they have the Number", obvious they are talking about "Slaves i.w, Christians. Any comments on this Perspective/ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
caldrail Posted December 7, 2012 Report Share Posted December 7, 2012 I wouldn't pay much attention to the ramblings of the Book of Revelations. That was written by a disaffected jewish exile with reason to revile his Roman persecutors. In general slaves were only branded if they misbehaved, especially if they ran away, so everyone would know not to trust them. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Divus Iulius Posted December 7, 2012 Author Report Share Posted December 7, 2012 I wouldn't pay much attention to the ramblings of the Book of Revelations. That was written by a disaffected jewish exile with reason to revile his Roman persecutors. In general slaves were only branded if they misbehaved, especially if they ran away, so everyone would know not to trust them. Whomever wrote the Book of Revelations , had access to the works of "Plutarch", and the works of "Suetonius" , So I cannot accept that Revelations was written by poor Jewish Exiles, but rather written by those whom were Rich, aristocratic, and likely written in the City of Rome. Why were this Book of Revelations addressed to 7 Churches, when according to Roman Archaeology, all of them were really Temples to the Imperial Cult. I do not understand the total lack of Input regarding to the Imperial Cult of Rome in the First Century. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
caldrail Posted December 9, 2012 Report Share Posted December 9, 2012 Access to Plutarch and Suetonius? You'll have to explain why you think that. Current research does not support your origin. The symbolism had less to do with religion than a disguised call for rebellion against Rome. Since the temples were suffering under the weight of Nero's demands for funds to rebuild Rome as Neroplois after the fire of ad64, it would seem the call to arms was aimed at those who had genuine reasons to see off the Caesars, and in any case, the author (whoever he was) didn't need access to rare books to appreciate current events. Lack of input regarding the imperial cult of the 1st century? Not sure I understand what you mean. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Maty Posted December 9, 2012 Report Share Posted December 9, 2012 You might be reading a bit too much into this, Divus. When Plutarch says 'branded with the mark of a horse' this means 'a horse-shaped brand'. (It's clearer in the original Greek.) Secondly, 'ippos' does not interchange with 'beast'. My copy of Liddell and Scott gives dozens of meanings for ippos and extensions for this root, and all of them pertain exclusively to horses. 'Beast' in the sense you mean, and in the koine on the Book of Relevations is 'teras', which Plutarch does not use here. The men you refer to were enslaved prisoners, some of whom managed to escape by pretending to be servants. As was often the case in ancient Greece and Rome, recaptured slaves were branded or tattooed. Finally, there's a difference between being able to buy and sell with the mark of the beast and being brought or sold while branded with a horse image. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Klingan Posted December 10, 2012 Report Share Posted December 10, 2012 Just a short notice: please remember to keep this thread on topic. We will not let it slide into a religious debate. The Legati Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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