What factor allows the term rebels here? I mean, did any other nation observe monotheism to be tested as the Jews? In a sense, those who did not reject Rome's heresy decree should be called rebels and/or disloyal. The Jews did not revolt because of the heavy taxes, which went on since day one; the revolt occured because of the heresy decree, and this was a foregone conclusion. When Caligula introdcued heresy, Herod did not obey it and it was not enforced, because he knew what outcome would result.
The situation under depraved Nero changed the status quo, whereby the great revolt resulted. The Roman contemporary archives [not Josephus] clearly show the Jews revolted against the decree to house Roman statues and conduct daily sacrifices in the temple - a situation which found a unique rejection by Jews alone in the Roman empire. In a sense, Jews paid the price for freedom of belief, one which did not bode well with divine kings. Josephus also states the revolt was initiated by the rejection of the sacrifice order as opposed anything else.
One must not forget this was not a new situation - the Jews held to this belief for 2000 years before Rome entered the scene, lastly with the Hellenist invasion of Judea, specially after Alexander's death. The Hellenists were firmly behind the revolt instigation, and issued similar decrees before Rome. After the Hellenists' first translation of the Hebrew bible in 300 BC, their priests started to despise Judaism, a situation seen by the Jews in all pagan systems before this time. The heresey decree continued under Christianity for some 1500 years, and implemented with a greater ferocity than all previous regimes.