Blaze26
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I am planning an essay on the Roman Governors of Britain, and have come to a dilemma in my reasoning. Would the Romans have classed the Caledonians as "Britons"? If not, then my use of the Scriptores Historiae Augustae will be undermined... I am assuming they would have done, but at the point I'm assessing (100AD-ish) it is possible the Caledonians were beyond the boundary of what was considered the Roman Empire. What does everyone think?