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Thank you for your reply. Yes, I have examined, albeit only in a cursorily fashion the work you mention. There are problems associated with it, ie. I don't read any Arabic languages, ect, ect. - but that's my problem. A bigger problem is the one that the Queen of Hearts expressed in Alice in Wonderland: "Words mean what I want them to mean, no more & no less"....what I mean by this is that those Arabic sources that have bee translated do not adequately describe the symptoms to the extent that the reader now cannot tell if its Bubonic Plague, Chicken Pox, Small Pox, Typhus, or what ever. But hey, I don't want to sound like a whinger, I'm just at a time and place where I need to regroup & reassess.

Thank you for your reply. I take your point that my premise about the disappearance of the plague may well be incorrect, due to poor documentation, lessening virulence, or greater resistance in the host population - or a combination of all three. Or maybe due to other causes/effects. At this point in time I would opt for a working hypothesis of lessening virulence. Based on the evidence in so far as we now know it - that there are at least 3 main biovars of Y. Pestis, the bacterium has evolved relatively recently - hence it appears capable of continued rapid mutation; and the third plague (the one still spluttering along today) has been nowhere near as deadly as contemporary writers told us the first 2 were. Of course this does not answer the question of why conteporary sources simply do not report any recurring waves of plague epidemics after about 750AD - unless it is, as you say, simply due to poor documentation. But this does not ring true to me. If we accept contemporary sources, the plague just disappeared as if someone turned off a tap. Mind you in China this did not appear to happen. Question is:why in one place and not another? But I must explore the story from the Chinese end in greater depth. I had not come across McNeill's book and will now certainly get is, so thank you for that lead. Respectfully, your premise about the disappearance of the Bubonic Plague might possibly be incorrect. The Bubonic Plague probably did make multiple recurrences between the Justinian Plague (AD 540-90) and the 14th Century "Black Death," but the documentation is very poor. It possibly recurred, but was less virulent or the host population was better able to survive infections. Nevertheless, to answer your question: There are two great books on the subject: William H. McNeill's Plagues and Peoples. This is one of the best books written about diseases and its impact on mankind, including the Ancient World. There on several pages on the Bubonic Plague. I recommend this book highly: Another good book, which deals with the Justinian Plague is William Rosen's Justinian's Flea: guy also known as gaius

Thank you for your comments. It had not occurred to me to research/look at the issue from the Chinese end of the telescope, so to speak, must be my ethnocentrism. I shall certainly take up your excellent suggestion. Regarding Procopius, yes I have read his writings, but as he died around 565AD he does not shed any light on the apparent disappearance of the plague from the Mediterranean in around 750AD. What I am looking for is leads to historians who were writing contemporaneously in the Mediterranean in the 8th, 9th & 10th centuries.

I am doing research regarding the apparent disappearance of the Bubonic Plague from the Byzantine Empire in about 740 (the Justinian Plague) until its re-emergence in 1340 (the Black Death). Can anyone out there point me towards any (preferable original) or secondary sources on this issue?