virg

Aggravating waste of time.

Thanks, guys. Same answers I get from Romanians. It's just hard for me to accept that they'd changed just half a pair of opposites. Something I googled on "Dacia" about the language; that according to both Herodotus and Pliny, the Thracian language was a coarse form of Latin. The Dac, a Thracian tribe using similar language. The Romans occupied only 14% of Dacia, for only 150 years. The author questions whether that brought their language, or they spoke a form of Latin/Thracian already.

For the French, I'm sure it does.

In most modern Latin tongues the words for "yes" and "no" and "si" and "no". French words at least rhyme. Slavs use "nyet" and "da". Romanians say "nu" and "da"? Changed half of a set of opposites? Can anyone here explain their use of "da" (but not "nyet" without citing the presence of Slavs in Romania? When did this begin. What hardnosed Slav conqueror taught them to say "yes" his way? When?