docoflove1974

Of course there is another answer. We girls have no life at all Or a third answer: we females are just better at multi-tasking, and don't get so easily distracted! Better focus = better work!

Hey now...I'm not much of a poet...but at least I know it...

Boxes...they're everywhere. Here...there...everywhere. Empty boxes, waiting to be filled with all sorts of momentos and knick-knacks. Partially-filled boxes, waiting to be completed, marked, and taped. Full boxes, bursting at the seems, ready to be shipped off to their new, albeit temporary home. Now I can't find a blessed thing, for all of these boxes are surrounding me!

Jeeeeeeeeeeezus...man, I'm thankful I could turn away so quickly.

Only if a phonetician is involved.

I'm betting it's going to be a crock of something else

Pretty much. There are several similarities to modern Castilian, but the biggest exceptions being the sibilants: In Medieval Spanish the sibiliants (s-like sounds) changed drastically, and depending on when one is referring to, there could be any scenario. In the earlier Medieval times, there were three main sibiliants: an apical (apical = tip of tongue), a 'standard' alveolar , and a palatal 'sh'. The apical affricated to a [ts] sound, then fronted and became the interdental 'th' sound; this is represented in the writing system as either 'z' or 'ci/e'. The palatal 'sh' regressed to the velar position, and became a velar fricative [x], represented in the writing system as either 'j' or 'gi/e'. You hear both in the Judeo-Spanish samples. Another sporatic element of the samples is [h]; depending on the timeframe again, you would either hear the original Latin [f] (falar), or perhaps an [h], or perhaps it's already been deleted. The sample has all of these elements...which is very interesting!

I don't know about today, but the previous documents that I've seen were from the Middle Ages, the Jewish population had two methods of writing, based on either the Roman/Romance alphabet and the Hebrew alphabet, with the method of writing reflecting the alphabet used.

Be very doubtful...as far as I know, there isn't even conclusive evidence that the Neanderthals had a language.

I don't know if this is interesting to anyone else but me, but I thought I'd post it here. A colleague sent this link; it contains audio samples of Judeo-Spanish, or Ladino. Now, a quick lesson: in the Romance world, there are two 'Ladino' languages: for the Italians, it is a branch of Rhaeto-Romance spoken in Switzerland and North-East Italy (I can't recall the exact location--I'll edit this in later). For the Spanish-speaking world, 'ladino' refers to the variety of Spanish spoken by the Sephardic Jews, who represent those unlucky souls who were expelled from Spain following the Reconquest by the Catholic Monarchs (that would be Ferdinand and Isabel). These Sephardi spoke Spanish, naturally; what is interesting is that they have kept this same dialect of Spanish for centuries. So, when one hears Ladino, or Judeo-Spanish, one hears a bit of Medieval/Renaissance Spanish! If you speak Spanish, listen to it, and figure out how much you can understand. If you can't, but are curious anyway, click away!

Please do not turn this into a Mac vs. PC (vs. Linux...I'm sure that opinion is coming soon!) debate...there is usually very little give by either side. I've used both systems extensively, and the only reason I tend to use PCs more than Macs is just personal preference. It's not that I don't like Macs, but that I like PCs more. But they are essentially equal; it all comes down to what one wishes to use the computer for, and what their personal preference is. Personally, I've had zero issues with the Dells that I've bought; if a glitch happened, it was usually my fault, or in the case of my laptop, I used it to death. Some people have the same luck with HPs, while others don't. Same have the same luck with Macs, while others don't. It's just the way it goes, I guess!

As I said in another thread, there are DNA studies which link (how strong of a link, I cannot recall) the Basques to the Caucuses. BUT...IIRC, the Basques, both genetically and linguistically (and I'm positive of the latter) are a homogeneous group who are very different than anyone else in Europe or Western Asia.

That's my opinion, too. When one looks at the history of Spain, one can think of 2 possible/probable counter-examples: --The Gothic tribes who conquered the Ibero-Roman citizens, intermarried with the 'native' population, so I'm sure that genetically many Spaniards (esp. in the north) have quite a bit of Germanic blood. Linguistically, it has been shown through several documents (Men

Remove the smiley face, and it'll look MUUUUUUUUUUUUCH better

Stupid A$$ Texas...*grumble mumble*

Well, DC's post is just another in the series of reminders that DNA similarities does not necessarily equal linguistic similarities. I would never rely on solely one versus the other, but a combination of both. I was under the impression that the Angles and Saxons pushed several Britons into Wales; is that theory still viable?

So you have some sculptors at the ready?

There are actually three major ways that the 'ancient texts' came back into Europe and lead to the Renaissance 'enlightenment': --Irish (and other British) monasteries, both in the copying/maintenance of the texts as well as their bringing them along when establishing new monasteries. --the Byzantine libraries, and when the Turks came crashing in, many Byzantines fled to Italy and brought their books with them. --the Moors, upon taking over Iberia, brought much of their learning, wisdom and library with them, much of which consisted of Roman and Greek texts, often transcribed into Arabic. There are other finds, naturally, but these three were the major viens that classical knowledge re-entered Europe and helped to bring about the 'end' of the Dark Ages.

--Minerva has always been my guiding light...she has never failed me. --No statues...unless someone else wishes to create them. It's not my style. Now, a huge feast...that's another issue all together --A/C...yes...in the next place of residence, there is A/C. Sadly, I have to share the place with my brother, and he doesn't have nearly the wine collection that my dad has. But, on the flip side, he has a spare bedroom...so I'll take it.

The game of the day was the Louisville/Texas A&M game...that was a well-played game all-around, and TAMU won despite playing in Kentucky (dammit). Tomorrow hold 2 possible barn burners: Kansas/Kentucky and USC/Texas (HOOK 'EM HORNS!!).

Ooooooooooooo purple silk!

Molto grazie, caro mio. It came as a surprise, and I know I'm honored by the title and responsibility.

No kidding...well, hey, that's what I get for focusing so much on the Romance world! Thanks, DF! Augusta: that map helped much...thanks! I love reading Herodotus, but in reading all of this, I used to think I was really good at geography. Apparently I have so much more to learn!

Caucasian Iberia??? The only Iberia that I had heard of was the peninsula of Sherry, Rioja, and Porto Fino... Pantagathus, great map that you linked. So, what everyone's saying is that think 'Central Asia' or 'West-Central Asia', and this Scythians, more or less? Does that mean that the peoples of the Caucuses are the descendants of this band of people? I'm sure there are many other factors interrelated, too. Also (side question): Parthia always refers to Persia, or at least that region?